CCNA Discovery 2 Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. vIn what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
• SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
• SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
2. Which mode will a configured router display at login?
• user EXEC mode
3.Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the configuration that is shown?
• all configured passwords
4.Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
• Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192
• Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
• blinks rapidly amber
6.Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
• X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254
7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes?
• router# show running-config
8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
• VTY interface
• console interface
• privileged EXEC mode
9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
• Tab
10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to 'LAB_A'?
• Router> enable
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
11.Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)
• Easy IP (IP negotiated)
• PPP encapsulation
13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
• host name
• domain name
• enable secret password
14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
• Set the command history buffer size.
• Recall previously entered commands.
15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
• host name
• DNS server IP address
16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
• Frame Relay
• HDLC
• PPP
17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
• Router# show ip route
18. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
• Telnet
19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
• platform
• connected interface of neighbor device
• device ID
20.Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
• clocking for the synchronous link
21. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• retains contents when power is removed
• stores the startup configuration file
22.Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to Router1 to access the remote server?
• Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)# no shutdown
23. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
• There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
• Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
• Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.
25. Which command turns on a router interface?
• Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Kamis, 11 November 2010
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
• 256
2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 11100111
3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
• Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class C
6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
7. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
• The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
• Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
8. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 30
9. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.32.255
10.Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
• 128
12. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
• 128 to 191
13. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A
14.refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
• 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
• to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
• to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
• 1025 and above
19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
• inside global
20. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
• improved security
• improved scalability
• sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
• 256
2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 11100111
3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
• Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class C
6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
7. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
• The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
• Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
8. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 30
9. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.32.255
10.Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
• 128
12. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
• 128 to 191
13. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A
14.refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
• 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13
16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
• to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
• to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.
18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
• 1025 and above
19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
• inside global
20. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
• improved security
• improved scalability
• sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts
Rabu, 03 November 2010
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
• improved physical security
• centralized cable management
2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.)
• unlabeled cables
• poor physical security of network devices
• lack of UPS for critical devices
3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
• rollover cable
• console cable
4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
• any planned growth anticipated in the near future
5.Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
• hub
• router
• switch
• access point
6. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
• A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
7. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
• the path that the data takes through a network
• the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
• the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering
8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
• router
9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
• to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
• a networking device with a modular physical configuration
11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
• reliability
12. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
• An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
13. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
• switches and routers
• network equipment racks
• the point of presence
14. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
• can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
• increases availability of help desk services
15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
• Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
• Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
16. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
• investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
• perform a site survey to document the existing network structure
17. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
• point of presence
18. to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
• A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
• A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight
19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
• Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
20. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
• coaxial
21. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
• IXP
1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
• improved physical security
• centralized cable management
2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.)
• unlabeled cables
• poor physical security of network devices
• lack of UPS for critical devices
3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
• rollover cable
• console cable
4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
• any planned growth anticipated in the near future
5.Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
• hub
• router
• switch
• access point
6. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
• A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
7. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
• the path that the data takes through a network
• the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
• the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering
8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
• router
9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
• to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
• a networking device with a modular physical configuration
11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
• reliability
12. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
• An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
13. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
• switches and routers
• network equipment racks
• the point of presence
14. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
• can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
• increases availability of help desk services
15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
• Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
• Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
16. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
• investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
• perform a site survey to document the existing network structure
17. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
• point of presence
18. to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
• A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
• A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight
19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
• Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
20. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
• coaxial
21. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
• IXP
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• initiating the network communication process
• segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination
2. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?
• formats and encodes data for transmission
3. Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?
• loose network cable
4. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)
• ping
• ipconfig
• Traceroute
5. Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?
• destination IP address
6. What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• bits, frames, packets, segments
7. What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)
• network optimization
• customer retention
8. In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to solve a customer's problems? (Choose three.)
• talking to the customer on the telephone
• using various web tools
• with remote desktop sharing applications
9. A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)
• Is the NIC link light blinking?
• Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?
• Can you access your e-mail account?
10. A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first?
• Can you access other web sites?
11. Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?
• When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.
12. What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• converting data to bits
• signal generation
13. A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.)
• What is your subnet mask?
• What is your IP address?
• Can you ping the default gateway?
14. Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
15. What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)
• opening a trouble ticket
• adhering to a problem-solving strategy
16. Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?
• Level 3
17. What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem?
define the problem
18. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?
• Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
19. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer's problem?
• failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses
20. Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers?
• application, presentation, session
1. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• initiating the network communication process
• segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination
2. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?
• formats and encodes data for transmission
3. Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?
• loose network cable
4. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)
• ping
• ipconfig
• Traceroute
5. Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?
• destination IP address
6. What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• bits, frames, packets, segments
7. What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)
• network optimization
• customer retention
8. In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to solve a customer's problems? (Choose three.)
• talking to the customer on the telephone
• using various web tools
• with remote desktop sharing applications
9. A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)
• Is the NIC link light blinking?
• Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?
• Can you access your e-mail account?
10. A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first?
• Can you access other web sites?
11. Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?
• When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.
12. What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• converting data to bits
• signal generation
13. A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.)
• What is your subnet mask?
• What is your IP address?
• Can you ping the default gateway?
14. Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
15. What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)
• opening a trouble ticket
• adhering to a problem-solving strategy
16. Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?
• Level 3
17. What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem?
define the problem
18. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?
• Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
19. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer's problem?
• failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses
20. Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers?
• application, presentation, session
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0
CCNA Discovery 2 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
• the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
• whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
• metro Ethernet
• T1
• T3
3. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
• 1.544 Mbps
4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
• echo request issued by source
5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?
• peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone
6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access?
• at a POP
7. What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?
• the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network
8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?"
• network operations
9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?
• planning and provisioning
10. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information?
• help desk
11. What feature allows network devices to be scalable?
• modularity
12. Which command generated this output?
• Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4
13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?
• traceroute
14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?
• IXPs
15. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?
• bits per second
16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?
• equipment colocation
17. What is the purpose of an RFC?
• to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
18. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?
• 1991
19. What was the original purpose of the Internet?
• research
20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.)
• help desk
• network operations center
• planning and provisioning
1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
• the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
• whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
• metro Ethernet
• T1
• T3
3. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
• 1.544 Mbps
4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
• echo request issued by source
5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?
• peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone
6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access?
• at a POP
7. What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?
• the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network
8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?"
• network operations
9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?
• planning and provisioning
10. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information?
• help desk
11. What feature allows network devices to be scalable?
• modularity
12. Which command generated this output?
• Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4
13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?
• traceroute
14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?
• IXPs
15. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?
• bits per second
16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?
• equipment colocation
17. What is the purpose of an RFC?
• to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
18. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?
• 1991
19. What was the original purpose of the Internet?
• research
20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.)
• help desk
• network operations center
• planning and provisioning
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